Is Prostitution a Moral Line of Work?

I want to start off by saying that the following is not my actual view of prostitution, but rather it is a view on whether or not it is considered a moral/immoral act through the categorical imperative, especially part two, which is put forth by Kant.

There is a tough line to cross to decide whether it is moral or immoral due to a variety of factors, but, in my opinion, based on what Kant states, it seems to be a moral choice of action. There is a sometimes hefty price that goes along with hiring a prostitute so the prostitute will almost always get some sort of reimbursement for using their bodies for the sake of someone else just as an athlete gives his or her body for the sake of others’ entertainment. Both are giving their respective bodies for the sake of other peoples’ entertainment and getting paid for it; therefore, prostitutes are not treated merely as a means for entertainment. Similarly, prostitutes can be compared to waiters/waitresses and delivery men in that they work as a middle man to get food in a similar way that a prostitute is the middleman for obtaining sexual pleasure. There seems to be no difference between the two except the end product of their work and we usually think that both waiters and delivery men have a respectable line of work that many people have a job in at some point in their lives. Would their work also be considered immoral if prostitution is immoral? According to Kant’s categorical imperative, neither would be immoral and both would be immoral in that neither treat humanity as merely a means, but in fact do have an end in themselves. That is my view of it based on Kant’s statement, but not my actual depiction of that life of work.